Originally Posted by
livedarklions
Using your income percentage definition of "fine bike", I wouldn't ever own one that expensive, so the question is utterly meaningless to me.
Originally Posted by
base2
It's called "normalization." It is frequently used to standardize a metric in relation to other factors.
Originally Posted by
Jim from Boston
I have read on BF that
a really nice bike is lighter than a f@rt, and more expensive than a divorce. 
BTW @
base 2 , I note that in your opening post you quote another (anonymous) poster without a link
Originally Posted by
base2
In another thread a poster made the following comment: [edited for brevity]
all my bikes have been Salvation army/ Goodwill for $40 dollars. None were $10,000 attempts at indirect self acceptance. (like others) If I had $10,000 to piss away, I would use it to help homeless vets, sick children, suffering dogs and I would gain direct self acceptance by being a kind and giving person.
Originally Posted by
Jim from Boston
…I leave my quotes as links to identify the author, and if anyone is interested in reading further, or verifying those quotes, they can easily be followed right from the post.
Has “
St. X,” contributed to this thread otherwise?
FWIW, I have frequently
posted (link) about what owning an expensive bike mean to me, with the bottom line,
Originally Posted by
Jim from Boston
…
I’ve participated in several popcorn threads on BF about the value of “expensive” bikes (I have one), and my last word is "At least I have no buyer's remorse about what I may be missing." 