Originally Posted by
Paul Barnard
He delineated two different scenarios for the shop. The stock the shops buy at the beginning of the year is the first. If the shop has those leftover, the shop will eat the price reduction. When a manufacturer has a load of leftover bikes, they will sell them to the shops at warehouse clearance prices. In that case the shop is buying them at a reduced price. In that scenario the manufacturer eats the loss.
The OP is asking from the perspective of a customer. To a customer, both of these scenarios look the same: the LBS has a bike and it's discounted, period. That they look the same from that perspective is the reason for asking the question in the first place.
Originally Posted by
Paul Barnard
His comment that the shop eats the loss 100% applied to the first scenario because he understood the OP to be asking about that scenario.
So it was understood that the OP was asking about the scenario wherein the LBS already had something in stock prior to a wholesale price drop (as opposed to buying it at after a wholesale price drop)?
If you'll ponder it a bit more, wouldn't the OP have already had his answer if that was the case?
Look, it was a poorly worded answer at best and contradictory at worst. If it were, as you say, delineated (to
describe or portray something precisely), we wouldn't be having this off-shoot convo. Whatever. I'm done and the answer is still the same: it depends.